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ORE Part 1 · Last updated November 2026

ORE Part 1 Paper A: Dental Science and Human Disease: free practice test

Paper A is the science half of ORE Part 1, the written exam overseas-qualified dentists must pass before the ORE Part 2 clinical exam and GDC registration. It covers dental science and human disease: anatomy, dental anatomy and embryology, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology, immunology, pathology, pharmacology, dental materials and statistics. You sit it with Paper B and must pass both in the same sitting.

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About the ORE Paper A exam

Paper A is the science half of ORE Part 1, the written exam overseas-qualified dentists must pass before the ORE Part 2 clinical exam and GDC registration. It covers dental science and human disease: anatomy, dental anatomy and embryology, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology, immunology, pathology, pharmacology, dental materials and statistics. You sit it with Paper B and must pass both in the same sitting.

What's on the exam

ORE Paper A
Anatomy, Dental Anatomy and Embryology
7 key facts
Physiology and Biochemistry
6 key facts
Microbiology and Immunology
6 key facts
Pathology and Human Disease
6 key facts
Pharmacology and Therapeutics
6 key facts
Dental Materials Science
6 key facts
Statistics and Evidence-Based Dentistry
6 key facts

Each branch is a topic in the official outline. Members see every key fact on the full mind map. Read the free study guide →

How to pass the ORE Paper A exam

  • Paper A and Paper B are taken in the same sitting and you must pass both. Don't neglect the sciences because Paper B feels more clinical: each paper has its own pass mark.
  • Questions are pitched at a 'just passed' UK BDS graduate and linked to the GDC's learning outcomes. Learn the science as it applies to the dental chair, not as a pre-clinical textbook.
  • Pharmacology questions follow UK sources: the BNF, the Dental Practitioners' Formulary and SDCEP guidance. Learn UK drug names and doses.
  • Each paper is standard-set, so the pass mark moves (50.5% for Paper A in August 2026). Aim for a clear margin, 65% or more in timed mocks.

Save your results and get your Readiness Score

Create a free account after the test: your score by topic, a mistakes bank, the complete study notes for the first topic, flashcards and the UK Guidelines Numbers Sheet.

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What's in the premium ORE Paper A prep

Premium ORE Paper A prep is studied one topic at a time. Each step starts with that topic's key notes and flashcard deck, then its own question sets of 25, so you master one topic before you move to the next. When every topic is strong, the 6 full mock exams show you're ready.

3,000practice questions, every answer explained
6full-length mock exams, 50 questions each, timed
800flashcards with spaced repetition, sorted by topic
60comprehensive key notes across 7 topics

Your step-by-step study path

  1. 1
    Anatomy, Dental Anatomy and Embryology9 key notes, 115 flashcards, then 450 practice questions in 18 sets of 25
    Notes free with an account
  2. 2
    Physiology and Biochemistry9 key notes, 115 flashcards, then 425 practice questions in 17 sets of 25
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  3. 3
    Microbiology and Immunology9 key notes, 115 flashcards, then 425 practice questions in 17 sets of 25
    Premium
  4. 4
    Pathology and Human Disease9 key notes, 115 flashcards, then 425 practice questions in 17 sets of 25
    Premium
  5. 5
    Pharmacology and Therapeutics8 key notes, 115 flashcards, then 425 practice questions in 17 sets of 25
    Premium
  6. 6
    Dental Materials Science8 key notes, 115 flashcards, then 425 practice questions in 17 sets of 25
    Premium
  7. 7
    Statistics and Evidence-Based Dentistry8 key notes, 110 flashcards, then 425 practice questions in 17 sets of 25
    Premium
  8. Final step: 6 full mock exams50 questions each, timed like test day. Pass them, then book your exam.
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Free with an account

Read the complete ORE Paper A study notes for “Anatomy, Dental Anatomy and Embryology”

Our first full set of comprehensive notes, about 15 minutes of reading: The trigeminal nerve where dentists meet it · Motor supply worth memorising · The facial nerve and taste · Fascial spaces and spread of infection · Tooth morphology and development, a worked exam example, the traps examiners use and a one-minute recap. Create a free account to read it and see how premium notes work before you decide.

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Study tools included

3,000 practice questions

3,000 exam-style questions per exam, organized topic by topic in sets of 25. Every answer explained, with the rule it comes from.

6 full mock exams

6 full-length timed mock exams per exam, with real question counts and time limits, so test day feels like practice day.

Exam Readiness Score

One 0 to 100 number that tells you when you're ready to book. Reach 80 and you're covered by our Pass Guarantee.

800 flashcards + spaced repetition

800 flashcards per exam, in a deck for each topic, that come back right before you'd forget them. Five minutes a day keeps every number fresh.

60 comprehensive key notes

60 key notes per exam, split across its topics and each explained in full: the concepts, worked exam examples, the traps examiners use and a quick recap. Your first set is free with an account.

Mind maps

See the whole exam on one screen: every topic and the facts under it.

Sample questions with answers

These are the questions in the free test above, with answers. Try the test first. You'll learn more by getting some wrong.

1. Which nerve supplies motor innervation to the mylohyoid muscle?
Answer: The nerve to mylohyoid, a branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. The nerve to mylohyoid leaves the inferior alveolar nerve just before it enters the mandibular foramen and supplies mylohyoid and the anterior belly of digastric. The hypoglossal nerve supplies the intrinsic and most extrinsic tongue muscles, not mylohyoid.
2. Which permanent tooth most often has two roots, one buccal and one palatal?
Answer: Maxillary first premolar. The maxillary first premolar usually has two roots (buccal and palatal) and two canals. The maxillary second premolar usually has one root, and the mandibular premolars are normally single-rooted.
3. A cleft of the upper lip results from failure of fusion between which embryonic processes?
Answer: The medial nasal process and the maxillary process. The upper lip forms when the medial nasal processes merge with each other and with the maxillary processes in weeks 4 to 7. Failure of medial nasal–maxillary fusion gives a cleft lip; failure of the palatal shelves to fuse gives a cleft palate.
4. Below about which pH does enamel hydroxyapatite start to dissolve (the critical pH)?
Answer: pH 5.5. The critical pH for enamel is about 5.5. Dentine and cementum dissolve at a higher pH (about 6.2 to 6.7), which is why exposed root surfaces are more caries-prone. Fluorapatite resists dissolution down to about pH 4.5.
5. Which gland produces the largest share of unstimulated (resting) whole saliva?
Answer: Submandibular gland. At rest the submandibular glands produce roughly two-thirds of whole saliva. When salivation is stimulated (for example by chewing), the parotid share rises sharply and can exceed half of the total.
6. Which organism is most closely associated with the initiation of caries on smooth enamel surfaces?
Answer: Streptococcus mutans. Mutans streptococci are acidogenic and aciduric and make extracellular glucans from sucrose, so they're linked with initiation of smooth-surface caries. Lactobacilli are associated more with progression into dentine. P. gingivalis is a periodontal pathogen.
7. A dental nurse develops itchy eczema on her fingertips after repeatedly handling uncured methacrylate resin. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?
Answer: Type IV (delayed, T cell-mediated). Allergic contact dermatitis to methacrylates is a type IV, delayed hypersensitivity reaction mediated by sensitised T cells, appearing 24 to 72 hours after contact. Methacrylate monomers penetrate most gloves, so a no-touch technique matters.
8. Which feature most reliably distinguishes a malignant neoplasm from a benign one?
Answer: Invasion of surrounding tissues and the ability to metastasise. Benign tumours grow by expansion and are often encapsulated; they don't invade or spread. Invasion and metastasis are the defining features of malignancy. Size and growth rate vary and aren't reliable on their own.
9. Which condition is a recognised cause of macroglossia?
Answer: Acromegaly. Excess growth hormone in acromegaly enlarges the tongue, lips and mandible (prognathism, spacing of teeth). Other causes include hypothyroidism, amyloidosis and lymphangioma. Iron deficiency gives atrophic glossitis; Addison's disease gives oral pigmentation.
10. A patient taking warfarin needs a simple extraction of one tooth. Their INR, measured 12 hours before the appointment, is 3.1. Following SDCEP guidance, what is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Proceed without interrupting warfarin, using local haemostatic measures. SDCEP advises checking the INR ideally within 24 hours of the procedure (up to 72 hours if stably anticoagulated). If it is below 4, treat without interrupting warfarin, limit the initial treatment area and use local measures such as packing and suturing.
11. How much lidocaine is in one 2.2 mL cartridge of 2% lidocaine with 1:80,000 adrenaline?
Answer: 44 mg. A 2% solution contains 2 g per 100 mL, which is 20 mg per mL. 20 mg × 2.2 mL = 44 mg per cartridge. The same volume of a 4% solution would hold 88 mg. Converting percentages to mg per mL is the first step in every maximum-dose calculation.
12. What is the setting reaction of a conventional glass ionomer cement?
Answer: An acid-base reaction between a polyalkenoic acid and a fluoroaluminosilicate glass. Polyacrylic (polyalkenoic) acid attacks the glass, releasing calcium, aluminium and fluoride ions that cross-link the acid chains into a salt matrix. Resin-modified glass ionomers add a light-cured polymerisation, but the conventional set is acid-base.
13. Which impression material keeps its dimensions best, so the cast can be poured several days later?
Answer: Addition-cured silicone (poly(vinyl siloxane)). Addition silicones set without a by-product and are very stable, so pouring can be delayed. Condensation silicones release ethanol and shrink over time. Hydrocolloids lose or gain water (syneresis and imbibition) and should be poured promptly.
14. A new caries test correctly detects 90 of 100 teeth that have caries and correctly clears 160 of 200 sound teeth. What is its sensitivity?
Answer: 90%. Sensitivity = true positives ÷ all with the disease = 90 ÷ 100 = 90%. Specificity = true negatives ÷ all without the disease = 160 ÷ 200 = 80%. Sensitivity is about the diseased group only.
15. What is the main purpose of randomisation in a controlled clinical trial?
Answer: To spread known and unknown confounding factors evenly between the groups. Random allocation balances confounders, including ones nobody measured, so a difference in outcome can be attributed to the treatment. Hiding the allocation from the assessor is blinding, a separate safeguard against bias.

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Certification guide

How to register with the GDC as an overseas-qualified dentist: Most dentists whose primary qualification wasn't gained in the UK or EEA must pass the [Overseas Registration Examination](https://www.gdc-uk.org/registration/overseas-registration-exam/about-the-ore) before they can apply to join the General Dental Council's register. The ORE has a written Part 1 and a clinical Part 2. If you pass each part first time it can take around six to 12 months, but demand for places is very high. Here's the full route and what it costs.

ORE Paper A exam FAQ

How many questions are on the ORE Paper A exam?

Single best answer (SBA) and extended matching questions (EMQs); the GDC doesn't publish the number of items, with a time limit of 3 hours. Format: closed book, computer-based.

What is the passing score for ORE Paper A?

Standard-set for each sitting and not given in advance. In August 2026 the minimum pass score for Paper A was 50.5%.

How much does the ORE Paper A exam cost?

£485 per attempt for ORE Part 1 (Papers A and B together), plus a one-time £115 ORE application fee (GDC, 2026). ORE fees are set by the GDC and can change, so confirm on the GDC website before you book.

Which languages is the ORE Paper A exam offered in?

English.

Where do I take the ORE Paper A exam?

UCL Consultants for the GDC, computer-based at an exam venue in London.

Is this ORE Paper A practice test free?

Yes. The 15-question practice test on this page is free, with an explanation for every answer and no signup. A free account also unlocks the complete study notes for the first topic. The full ORE Paper A prep is Premium at £107 a month for this exam.

What's in the premium ORE Paper A prep?

3,000 practice questions organized topic by topic (Anatomy, Dental Anatomy and Embryology: 450; Physiology and Biochemistry: 425; Microbiology and Immunology: 425; Pathology and Human Disease: 425; Pharmacology and Therapeutics: 425; Dental Materials Science: 425; Statistics and Evidence-Based Dentistry: 425), 6 full-length timed mock exams of 50 questions, 800 flashcards and 60 comprehensive key notes split across all 7 topics, plus a mistakes bank and the Readiness Score.

Compare ORE Paper A with the other ORE Part 1 paper

Related practice tests

ORE Part 1

ORE Part 1 Paper B: Clinical Dentistry, Law, Ethics and Health and Safety

Paper B is the clinical half of ORE Part 1. It covers clinical dentistry (restorative, endodontics, periodontology, prosthodontics, paediatric dentistry, orthodontics, oral surgery, oral medicine and radiography) plus law, ethics and health and safety as they apply in the UK. You sit it with Paper A and must pass both in the same sitting.

15 free questions3,000 premium Qs · 6 mocks · 800 flashcards · 60 key notes
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Exam details are summarized from the official candidate information available in November 2026. the General Dental Council changes formats and fees, so confirm with General Dental Council (GDC) before you book. OREPart1Prep is not affiliated with the General Dental Council or its exam providers.

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